Yesterday, 02:09 PM
Jussie Smollett conviction overturned by Illinois Supreme Court
I must be a bad person.
From what I understood of the case, Mr. Smollett appeared quite guilty of the general notion of "orchestrating a hate crime hoax."
"Today we resolve a question about the State’s responsibility to honor the agreements it makes with defendants," the court wrote in documents obtained by Fox News Digital. "Specifically, we address whether a dismissal of a case by nolle prosequi allows the State to bring a second prosecution when the dismissal was entered as part of an agreement with the defendant and the defendant has performed his part of the bargain. We hold that a second prosecution under these circumstances is a due process violation, and we therefore reverse defendant’s conviction."
I am particularly intrigued by the phrase "the dismissal was entered as part of an agreement with the defendant and the defendant has performed his part of the bargain."
What exactly was his part of the "bargain?" It not being specified gives me pause. And now they provide him with "double jeopardy" protection? Exactly how does this deal mimic justice? I wonder what the Supreme Court of Illinois saw that made them "reverse" the conviction? Will a jury ever get to nullify this? Does anyone really care?
If he served his time, he served. I get it. But this seems very different.
I must be a bad person.
From what I understood of the case, Mr. Smollett appeared quite guilty of the general notion of "orchestrating a hate crime hoax."
"Today we resolve a question about the State’s responsibility to honor the agreements it makes with defendants," the court wrote in documents obtained by Fox News Digital. "Specifically, we address whether a dismissal of a case by nolle prosequi allows the State to bring a second prosecution when the dismissal was entered as part of an agreement with the defendant and the defendant has performed his part of the bargain. We hold that a second prosecution under these circumstances is a due process violation, and we therefore reverse defendant’s conviction."
I am particularly intrigued by the phrase "the dismissal was entered as part of an agreement with the defendant and the defendant has performed his part of the bargain."
What exactly was his part of the "bargain?" It not being specified gives me pause. And now they provide him with "double jeopardy" protection? Exactly how does this deal mimic justice? I wonder what the Supreme Court of Illinois saw that made them "reverse" the conviction? Will a jury ever get to nullify this? Does anyone really care?
If he served his time, he served. I get it. But this seems very different.