2 Thessalonians 2:3--The use of the word "APOSTASIA"

[Doc Apocalypse]

I want to post something that occurred to me the other day about the use of the word "apostasia" in a famous Bible passage. 

2 Thessalonians 2:3 (NKJV):

https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?se...rsion=NKJV

[sup] [/sup]Let no one deceive you by any means; for that Day will not come unless the falling away comes first, and the man of sin is revealed, the son of perdition,

The term "falling away" is based on the Greek word "apostasia." 

The thing is, "apostasia" can also mean a "departure."

https://www.google.com/search?q=APOSTASI...e&ie=UTF-8

1. The "Falling Away" or "Rebellion" (Spiritual Departure)
Most modern translations (such as the ESV, NIV, and NASB) translate apostasia as "rebellion" or "apostasy". [1]

• The Meaning: It signifies a massive, deliberate turning away from the Christian faith or an open revolt against God's truth.
  
• The Context: Paul warns that this era of mass spiritual deception will culminate in the revelation of the "man of lawlessness" (the Antichrist) prior to Christ's return. 
  

2. The Rapture (Physical Departure)
Some prophecy teachers argue that apostasia should be understood as a physical departure, specifically the "Rapture" of the Church. 

• The Meaning: The root of the word (apo meaning "away from" and stasis meaning "standing") is seen by some as a spatial or physical removal from the earth. 
  

So, which is it?  People have debated, and continue to debate the possible interpretation of "apostasia" as either a rebellion against the Christian faith in the end times, or as evidence for a pre-tribulation Rapture.

Here's what dawned on me the other day:  What if the Holy Spirit deliberately inspired Paul to use the word "apostasia" because of--not in spite of--its double meaning?    What if God intended for BOTH meanings to be true?

Food for thought.

[IdeomotorPrisoner]

Paul wrote The Letters to the Thessalonians about 20 years after Christ's state execution. So they were still the apostasy of Rome at that point. 

I would guess that which preceded "the day of the lord" was a far-flung premonition for the time the church had something to fall away from..

So it depends on what you qualify as apostasy..

If you DON'T qualify "ecumenical councils deciding what the best words of god are," "crusades," "conquistodores," "inquisitions," "witch hunts," "forced conversion," or "instances of religiously justified mass slaughter" as having fallen away, then its a mass collective consciousness change thing.

So my interpretation is its both types of apostasy simultaneously too. 

It talks of a mass falling away of christian values, but not necessarily one from outside the church.  In fact it makes quite clear it comes from within when paired with Revelation. 

So if you dont count all the above its a time of mass inversion where (the message of) Christ will return with secular woke devil horns and Satan will wear traditional sacremental robes.  

Another point is, I dont think Christ's return is literal at all, but the time when people return to the original message and embody the ACTUAL fluffy teachings Christ once embraced. 

The second coming is a collective shift. 

I think it's also the falling away of the way christianity is practiced, which will be good and bad and the reverse of that all at once. 

Almost like the message of Christ comes back to counter demonstrate everyone for missing the point entirely at a "Children of God Without Borders" rally, but will be otherwise ignored for being another radical left marxist.